Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 27.06.2025 23:59
There's no rule.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
3 keys to success every Citadel intern learns their first week on the job - Business Insider
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.
If Iran’s Oil Is Cut Off, China Will Pay the Price - WSJ
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.